Weight loss and dizziness in a 29-year-old man

Treatment Orders

A diagnosis of Addisonian crisis due to bilateral adrenal hemorrhage is confirmed. At this time, which of the following are appropriate management steps for this patient? (You may select more than one option.)





Although patient’s elevated plasma renin activity indicates he has mineralocorticoid deficiency and will thus require lifelong replacement with fludrocortisone, his initial high-dose hydrocortisone treatment of >40 mg per day has sufficient mineralocorticoid effect that fludrocortisone is not necessary initially until the total daily dose of hydrocortisone is reduced to less than 40 mg.